(A) Photo cropping
(B) Photo placement
(C) Photo cutting
(D) Photo colour adjustment
2. While designing communication strategy feed-forward studies are conducted by
3. In which language the newspapers have highest circulation?
4. Aspect ratio of TV Screen is
(A) 4 : 3
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 2 : 3
(D) 2 : 4
5. Communication with oneself is known as
(A) Organisational Communication
(B) Grapewine Communication
(C) Interpersonal Communication
(D) Intrapersonal Communication
6. The term ‘SITE’ stands for
(A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment
(B) Satellite International Television Experiment
(C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment
(D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education
7. What is the number that comes next in the sequence?
2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___
8. Find the next letter for the series
9. If ‘367’ means ‘I am happy’; ‘748’ means ‘you are sad’ and ‘469’ means ‘happy and sad’ in a given code, then which of the following represents ‘and’ in that code ?
10. The basis of the following classification is ‘animal’, ‘man’, ‘house’, ‘book’, and ‘student’:
(A) Definite descriptions
(B) Proper names
(C) Descriptive phrases
(D) Common names
11. Assertion (A): The coin when flipped next time will come up tails.
Reason (R): Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
12. The relation ‘is a sister of ’ is
13. If the proposition “Vegetarians are not meat eaters” is false, then which of the following inferences is correct? Choose from the codes given below:
1. “Some vegetarians are meat eaters” is true.
2. “All vegetarians are meat eaters” is doubtful.
3. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is true.
4. “Some vegetarians are not meat eaters” is doubtful.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
14. Determine the nature of the following definition: ‘Poor’ means having an annual income of Rs. 10,000.
15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday.
(C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose.
(D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town.
16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
(D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes.
17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may
(A) support and entail a conclusion
(B) not support but entail a conclusion
(C) neither support nor entail a conclusion
(D) support a conclusion without entailing it
18. Which of the following statements are true? Choose from the codes given below.
1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid.
2. A sound argument may be invalid.
3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion.
4. A statement may be true or false.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4 alone
(D) 3 and 4
19. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by
(A) 60 %
(B) 40 %
(C) 196 %
(D) 96 %
21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(A) y can be exactly determined
(B) y may be either of two values
(C) y may be any of three values
(D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions
22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ?
(A) 11 AM
(B) 12 Noon
(C) 1 PM
(D) 1:30 PM
The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below ;
23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 6.79 GW
(B) 19.4 GW
(C) 9.7 GW
(D) 29.1 GW
24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation ?
(A) 29.1 GW
(B) 26.19 GW
(C) 67.9 GW
(D) 97 GW
25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(A) Phone lines
(D) a Server
26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
27. Which of the following is not a programming language ?
(B) Microsoft Office
28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to
29. Internet explorer is a type of
(A) Operating System
(D) IP address
30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(A) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(C) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(D) One does not need any telephone lines
31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(A) Sulphur di-oxide
(D) Nitrous oxide
32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons ?
(A) Thermal power plants
(C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning
33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ?
(A) Clean air
(B) Fertile soil
(C) Fresh water
34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ?
(A) Total dissolved solids
(B) Coliform count
(C) Dissolved oxygen
35. S and P waves are associated with
(B) wind energy
(D) tidal energy
36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List – I List – II
(i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami
(ii) Greenhouse effect (b) UV radiations
(iii) Natural hazards (c) Methane
(iv) Sustainable development (d) Eco-centrism
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) (b) (c) (a) (d)
(B) (c) (b) (a) (d)
(C) (d) (c) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (b) (c) (a)
37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
39. Which of the following rights was considered the “Heart and Soul” of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ?
(A) Freedom of Speech
(B) Right to Equality
(C) Right to Freedom of Religion
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Warren Hastings
(C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation
(D) Sir Charles Metcalfe
41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To develop the scientific temper.
3. Respect for the Government.
4. To protect Wildlife.
Choose the correct answer from the
codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 3, 4 and 2
42. The President of India takes oath
(A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
(B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India.
(C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country.
(D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country.
43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ?
(A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer.
(B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room.
(C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything.
(D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him.
44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ?
45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ?
(A) Overhead projector
(D) Slide projector
46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard ?
(A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible.
(B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it.
(C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them.
(D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible.
47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(A) helps students in becoming better citizens
(B) imparts subject knowledge to students
(C) prepares students to pass the examination
(D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner
48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(A) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(D) The students should be required to learn through activities
49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(A) Action Research
(B) Empirical Research
(C) Conceptual Research
(D) Fundamental Research
50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used ?
(C) op.cit :
51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(A) Vertical study
(B) Cross-sectional study
(C) Time series study
(D) Experimental study
52. Conferences are meant for
(A) Multiple target groups
(B) Group discussions
(C) Show-casing new Research
(D) All the above
53. Ex Post Facto research means
(A) The research is carried out after the incident
(B) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident.
(D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident.
54. Research ethics do not include
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 :
James Madison said, “A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives.” In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, “I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People.” He further said, “This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews.”
The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State.
55. A person gets power
(A) by acquiring knowledge
(B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(C) through openings
(D) by denying public information
56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process
(B) to make the people aware of the Act
(C) to gain knowledge of administration
(D) to make the people Government friendly
57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(A) to provide power to the civil servants
(B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government
(C) a draconian law against the officials
(D) to check the harassment of the people
58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(A) extending power to the executive authorities
(B) combining the executive and legislative power
(C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit
(D) educating the people before its implementation
59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning.
(B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit.
(C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(D) All the above
60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State.
These three organs are
(A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive
(C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission
(D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary
61. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans?
(A) Carbon monoxide
(B) Nitric oxide
(C) Sulphur di-oxide
62. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector?
(A) Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons
63. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India?
(A) Solar energy
(B) Wind energy
(C) Ocean thermal energy
(D) Tidal energy
64. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil?
(A) Transport sector
(B) Agriculture sector
(C) Thermal power plants
(D) Hydropower plants
65. Which of the following is not a natural hazard?
(C) Flash floods
(D) Nuclear accident
66. Ecological footprint represents
(A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement
(B) energy consumption
(C) CO2 emissions per person
(D) forest cover
67. The aim of value education to inculcate in students is
(A) the moral values
(B) the social values
(C) the political values
(D) the economic values
68. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India.
69. One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of
(A) The President of India
(B) Finance Minister of India
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Secretary of Government of India
70. Match the List – I with the List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I
(Commissions and Committees)
List – II
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
(b) Paul H. Appleby Committee I
(c) K. Santhanam Committee
(d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
71. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by
(A) The State Election Commission of respective States
(B) The Law Ministry of Government of India
(C) The Election Commission of India
(D) Election Department of the State Governments
72. The members of Gram Sabha are
(A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas
(B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker
(C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas
(D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat
73. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible?
(A) Evaluation at the end of the course.
(B) Evaluation twice in a year.
(C) Continuous evaluation.
(D) Formative evaluation.
74. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher’s house for the purpose, the teacher should
(A) contact the student’s parents and solve his problem.
(B) suggest him that he should never visit his house.
(C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem.
(D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale.
75. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher?
(A) Expelling those students.
(B) Isolate those students.
(C) Reform the group with your authority.
(D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour.
76. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid?
77. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask
(A) meaningful questions
(B) as many questions as possible
(C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time
(D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time
78. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher?
(A) He should be a learned person.
(B) He should be a well dressed person.
(C) He should have patience.
(D) He should be an expert in his subject.
79. A hypothesis is a
80. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow?
(A) Area Sampling
(B) Multi-stage Sampling
(C) Sequential Sampling
(D) Quota Sampling
81. Controlled group condition is applied in
(A) Survey Research
(B) Historical Research
(C) Experimental Research
(D) Descriptive Research
82. Workshops are meant for
(A) giving lectures
(B) multiple target groups
(C) showcase new theories
(D) hands on training/experience
83. Which one of the following is a research tool?
84. Research is not considered ethical if it
(A) tries to prove a particular point.
(B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent.
(C) does not investigate the data scientifically.
(D) is not of a very high standard.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60 :
The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental ‘second reality’ of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the ‘first reality’ of enlightened rationalism and the ‘second reality’ of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the ‘is’ of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ‘ought to be’). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being.
The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a ‘science of understanding’ in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible.
85. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on
(C) Spiritual devaluation
(D) Inordinate development
86. The ‘de facto’ values in the passage means
(A) What is
(B) What ought to be
(C) What can be
(D) Where it is
87. According to the passage, the ‘first reality’ constitutes
(A) Economic prosperity
(B) Political development
(C) Sacred perception of life
(D) Enlightened rationalism
88. Encounter of the ‘two cultures’, the scientific and the human implies
(A) Restoration of normal vision
(B) Universe is both material and non-material
(C) Man is superior to nature
(D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature
89. The contents of the passage are
90. The passage indicates that science has proved that
(A) universe is material
(B) matter is energy
(C) nature has abundance
(D) humans are irresponsible
91. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet.
Find the correct statement out of the following:
(A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address.
(D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64.
92. According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher's success depends on:
(A) His renunciation of personal gain and service to others
(B) His professional training and creativity
(C) His concentration on his work and duties with a spirit of obedience to God
(D) His mastery on the subject and capacity in controlling the students
93. Which of the following teacher, will be liked most?
(A) A teacher of high idealistic attitude
(B) A loving teacher
(C) A teacher who is disciplined
(D) A teacher who often amuses his students
94. Value-education stands for:
(A) making a student healthy
(B) making a student to get a job
(C) inculcation of virtues
(D) all-round development of personality
95. When a normal student behaves in an erratic manner in the class, you would:
(A) pull up the student then and there
(B) talk to the student after the class
(C) ask the student to leave the class
(D) ignore the student
96. The research is always -
(A) verifying the old knowledge
(B) exploring new knowledge
(C) filling the gap between knowledge
(D) all of these
97. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and more clear ideas about the problem is:
(A) Applied research
(B) Action research
(C) Experimental research
(D) None of these
98. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most suitable sampling method is:
(A) Cluster Sampling
(B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Convenient Sampling
(D) Lottery Method
99. A teacher's most important challenge is:
(A) To make students do their home work
(B) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
(C) To maintain discipline in the class room
(D) To prepare the question paper
100. The process not needed in experimental research is:
(B) Manipulation and replication
(D) Reference collection